is understood by the expression, "the triune God?"
<ANSWER>--Some have thought this to be a scriptural expression,
but it is not to be found in the Bible. It is believed to have
originated in the heathen mythologies of the Hindoos in ancient
India. Webster defines the term "triune" as three
in one--"an epithet used to express the unity of a trinity
of persons in the Godhead." We know of but one passage
in the Bible that actually teaches the doctrine of a "triune
God." But this passage is now conceded to be spurious by
all Bible scholars. The words found in `1 John 5,7` ("in
heaven the Father, the Word and the Holy Spirit, and these three
are one; and there are three that bear witness in earth"),
are not contained in any of the oldest Greek manuscripts. The
Religious Dictionary, page 944, says: "It was not until
the fourth century that the Trinitarian view began to be elaborated
and formulated into a doctrine, and an endeavor made to reconcile
it with the belief of the Church in one God . . . Out of the
attempt to solve this problem sprang the doctrine of the Trinity
. . . Trinity is a very marked feature in Hindooism, and is
discernible in Persian, Egyptian, Roman, Japanese, Indian, and
the most ancient Grecian mythologies."
the oneness between Jesus Christ and God, the Heavenly Father,
ethical or metaphysical? (R.A.H.)
<ANSWER>--In the early history of the Church, after the
Apostles had fallen asleep, many bitter controversies were engaged
in over this very question. But now in these latter days when
knowledge is increasing along all lines, and particularly so
as regards the knowledge and understanding of the Scriptures,
the solution of the matter is clearly seen. There is not a single
passage of Scripture to be found in which it is set forth that
the Lord Jesus and the Father are one in the metaphysical sense.
Two texts are usually relied upon to support the metaphysical
view, but it has been wrongly translated and the other is spurious
as it is not contained in any of the old Greek manuscripts.
The first of these, `John 1:1`, should read--"In the beginning
was the Word, and the Word was with (<ho theos>) the God,
and the Word was (<theos>) a God. The same was in the
beginning with (<ho theos>) the God." The Logos was
a God (mighty one) and was with the God (the Almighty One).
The spurious passage is found in `1 John 5:7`, and consists
of the words, "in heaven the Father, the Word and the Holy
Spirit, and these three are one. And there are three that bear
witness in earth." As showing that the oneness of the Father
and the Son is in the ethical sense we need only to quote a
portion of the Lord Jesus' prayer--"I pray not for the
world but for them which Thou hast given Me, for they are Thine
. . . neither pray I for these alone, but for them also which
believe on Me through their word; that they all may be one,
as Thou, Father, art in Me and I in Thee, that they also may
be one in Us...that they may be one, even as We are one; I in
them and Thou in Me, that they may be made perfect in one."--`John
Christ was God the Father, and God the Son, and God the Holy
Spirit; how could a voice from heaven say--"This is My
beloved Son," when He was a man on earth? (Diogenes.)
< ANSWER> This is an age of general enlightenment. Knowledge
is increasing along all lines, and specially so in regard to
the teachings of the Scriptures. The superstitions and theories
of the darker past are fading away in the light that is gradually
widening out unto the perfect day. The shadows of ignorance
and prejudice are still lingering here and there; but those
minds of bolder sway that have burst the bonds and shackles
of the creeds and traditions of former times, are rejoicing
in the glorious liberty that comes to those who know the truth.
God's Word has been woefully misrepresented both by friends
and foes, and because many have been taught to believe that
the absurd theories found in the creeds are contained in the
Bible; these, in the light of our day, are rejecting the Bible
as the inspired Word of God in place of studying the Scriptures
to ascertain what they really teach. The expression of the creeds,
contained in the question, is nowhere found in the Bible. Our
Lord Jesus never claimed to be "God the Father" but
always said that He was the Son of God. "My Father is greater
than I"; "God sent His Son into the world." Our
Lord Jesus was not His own Father; but as the Scriptures declare
He "was the beginning of the creation of God." The
voice from heaven to the Son on earth proves absolutely, unless
we deny our reasoning faculties and become unreasonable, that
the Heavenly Father and our Lord Jesus are two distinct personalities.
explain Isaiah 9:6 where Jesus is referred to as being the "everlasting
father" and "mighty God". Doesn't this support
the idea of the Trinity?
< ANSWER> Isaiah 9:6 "For unto us a child is born, unto
us a son is given: and the government shall be upon his shoulder:
and his name shall be called Wonderful, Counsellor, The mighty
God, The everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace."
Regarding the possible confusion on this verse in harmonizing
it with the scriptural teaching that Jesus is the Son of God,
we observe that this verse is definitely a prophecy referring
to Jesus. Jesus is a mighty god, but he is not the Almighty
God. Remember that Jesus quoted verse (Psalm 82:6) in reproving
the Jews for wanting to stone him for calling himself the Son
Let us read this account in John 10:31-36: "Then the Jews took
up stones again to stone him. Jesus answered them, many good
works have I shewed you from my Father; for which of those works
do ye stone me? The Jews answered him, saying, for a good work
we stone thee not; but for blasphemy; and because that thou
being a man, makest thyself God. Jesus answered them, is it
not written in your law, I said, ye are gods? If he called them
gods, unto whom the word of God came, and the scripture cannot
be broken; say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and
sent into the world, thou blasphemes; because I said, I am the
Son of God?
God in this sense means a mighty one. To refer to the one and
only Almighty God, we need to add definitive language, like
So then in Isaiah 9:6 we can see that the phrase "mighty God"
does not have to refer to the Heavenly Father, but can and does
refer to Jesus.
Now the phrase "everlasting Father", means agelasting Father
in the Hebrew. But the thought of Jesus being a father is of
In I Corinthians 15:45 we read "And so it is written, The first
man Adam was made a living soul; the last Adam a life giving
spirit". As Adam was the father or progenitor of the human family,
so Jesus because of his willing sacrifice on the cross, became
the second Adam, a life giving spirit for the dying human family.
Adam gave us life, but actually we all die because of inherited
sin. Jesus though, gives us the ability to gain perfect life
and that eternally.
Similarly we read in Revelation 22:16 "I Jesus have sent mine
angel to testify unto you these things in the churches. I am
the root and the offspring of David, and the birth and morning
Jesus is the offspring of David in a sense through his genealogy
through Joseph and Mary. This fulfills certain prophecies. He
is the root of David in the sense that the root is the life
source for a plant. Jesus will resurrect David, he will be the
life source for David in the future. So then, in effect, Jesus
will be a father or life giver to David, but not to David alone,
but rather to all mankind, just as the first Adam was to the
whole human family.
We trust that this helps to explain Isaiah 9:6 with the rest
of the scriptures in explaining that Jesus is the Son of God
Almighty, and that in the peaceable kingdom, Jesus will be the
mighty God empowered to restore the fallen human family as his
own as the second Adam or second father to the race.